What does it mean that the kingdom of heaven is at hand?

Explanation:

When Matthew says that the kingdom of heaven is at hand, the term kingdom of heaven essentially means kingdom of God. Whereas the authors Mark and Luke use the term kingdom of God, Matthew uses kingdom of heaven. Why would Matthew use the term kingdom of heaven? Most likely he does this out of respect for his Jewish audience.⁵ For the sake of reverence, pious Jews would avoid using the name of God.⁶ Matthew knows this, so he alters his vocabulary accordingly. This means that to consider what it means that the kingdom of heaven is at hand is to consider what it means that the kingdom of God is at hand. And we will consider the meaning of these in argument b).

Counterargument:

In fact, Matthew uses the phrase kingdom of heaven and kingdom of God in his Gospel. This implies that Matthew had no problem mentioning the name of God; rather, he had two different referents in mind, including the kingdom of heaven and the kingdom of God. One possible way to explain these referents is that when Matthew mentions the kingdom of heaven he has the future kingdom of God in mind, and when he mentions the kingdom of God, he refers to present manifestations. Thus, when Jesus in Matthew 4:17 says that the kingdom of heaven is near, he must be referring to the future reign of God that follows the consummation of time.⁷

Response to counterargument:

It is unlikely that Matthew has two different referents in mind when he uses the phrases kingdom of heaven and kingdom of God. Even a cursory analysis shows that Matthew uses these phrases interchangeably. The most poignant example comes from Matthew 19:23 where Matthew records Jesus’ explaining that only with great difficulty will a rich person enter heaven. He then repeats himself in Matthew 19:24 when he states that it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich person to enter the kingdom of God. In this example, the phrases kingdom of heaven and kingdom of God are clearly identical in meaning.

We argued that Matthew was likely sensitive to his Jewish audience, so he purposely avoids using the name of God. Matthew is a subtle writer and there is another possible motivation in his mind.⁸ It is possible that Matthew uses the phrase kingdom of heaven so that his readers would have room in their minds to assign Jesus as the king who reigns.⁹ The kingdom of heaven is simultaneously the kingdom of the Father and the Son.

Explanation:

The Old Testament prophets exclaimed that a future divine visitation would establish justice, destroy the enemy, and recreate the universe.¹⁰ For example, in Zephaniah 3:18–20 we read that at a future time God would gather his people and make their name renowned among the nations. At that time God would restore their fortunes. Also, Isaiah 1:26–27 explains that the Lord would restore the judges, Zion would be redeemed by justice and those who repent by righteousness. Related to this was the promise of a new covenant, proclaimed by the prophet Jeremiah, who explained that a time was coming when God would write his laws on people’s hearts. Finally, in Daniel 2:44 (although there are many other examples) we read that there is a future time when the God of heaven would establish a kingdom that shall never be destroyed.¹¹ Thus, the people of God anticipated a future kingdom of God when he would cause Israel to prosper, and reign with justice.

Now Jesus proclaims that the awaited kingdom of heaven has come near. This means that the imminent reign which God promised has been inaugurated through the ministry of Jesus Christ.¹²

Counterargument:

It is hard to see how the kingdom of heaven in Matthew 4:17 could refer to the promised future reign of God when his kingdom would be established forever. The fact is, there is still sin in the world, so how is it that God’s permanent reign has been established? Added to this, the hope instilled by the prophets was the anticipation, not of a future reign, but of a future place. The Jews hoped for a day when the kingdoms of the earth would be overthrown, and the people could find refuge in the eternal resting place of the kingdom of heaven.¹³

Response to counterargument:

There are a couple of problems with this view. For one, in the Old Testament the promise has to do with the dynamic force of God’s reign.¹⁴ This means the anticipation did not have as much to do with a realm as with God reigning over the people with justice, and righteousness.¹⁵ Added to this, we have to keep in mind the verb to come near/be at hand. Jesus says, Repent, not because the people will eventually dwell in a future realm, but because the kingdom of heaven is at hand.

It is also interesting to note that Matthew has already set Jesus up as a king, with the wise men inquiring in Jerusalem where the king of the Jews would be born (Matthew 2:2).¹⁶ Later in Matthew’s Gospel, Jesus explains that if he casts out demons by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God has come upon them (Matthew 12:28).¹⁷ Thus we can see that the kingdom of heaven, which has to do with the dynamic reign of God, has come near because Jesus Christ’s ministry has been inaugurated. In other words, God’s reign of justice has begun through Jesus Christ.

Possible weaknesses:

One weakness of this view is that it depends in some ways on prophetic texts like Zephaniah 3:18–20, and Daniel 2:44, which describe an imminent future reign of God. The problem is that these texts seem to indicate the kingdom of heaven as a future reality. If the kingdom of heaven is a future reality, Jesus could have a temporal notion in mind. His point would be that God’s imminent future reign is closer than before. Still, a grammatical objection against this view will be considered in Interpretation 2, argument a) counterargument.

Explanation:

In order to understand what it means that the kingdom of heaven is near, we need to consider the phrase in context. When we do we find that Jesus opens the phrase with a command, namely, Repent! Why does Jesus call on the people to repent? Because the kingdom of heaven is at hand. The moral imperative precedes and dominates the saying.¹⁸ What Jesus is doing is warning the people that God’s judgment is imminent so they ought to begin living the ethical life that Jesus will explain in the following verses.¹⁹

Counterargument:

This view argues that the kingdom of heaven is a future event when God will judge the people. The problem with this view is that it overlooks the perfect active indicative form of the verb to come near. Jesus proclaims that the kingdom of heaven has come near, and uses the perfect active indicative to capture the nuance of what it means that the kingdom has come near. The perfect active indicative is most often used to indicate an event that happened in the past which has continued effect (at the time of the speaker).²⁰ The implication of this grammar is that the kingdom of heaven came near before Jesus spoke, and it continued to have its effect when Jesus proclaimed this saying. The most likely explanation for how the kingdom could come near even before Jesus spoke is that when Jesus came into the world the reign of God came near, and the reign of God, through the ministry of Jesus, continued to have ongoing effects.

Explanation:

Since Matthew was a Jew, when he uses the phrase kingdom of heaven we should consider what it means in light of the rabbinic thought of his day. When we do this, we find that Matthew’s usage fits well with the rabbinic emphasis on ethics. Just as the rabbis challenged people to carry the yoke of God in the here and now until the judgment of God, so Matthew urges the church to keep God’s commands in the present. By keeping the kingdom of heaven the church will be permitted to enter the reign of heaven.²¹

Counterargument:

There are several problems with this view. First, we should consider Matthew’s understanding of the phrase kingdom of heaven in light of the Old and New Testament, not the rabbinic traditions of his day.²² The reason for this is because we know that Matthew quotes from the Old Testament often, and he does so to show the Jews that Jesus fulfills the Old Testament. Matthew is not following traditional rabbinic thought; rather, he is upending it. What do we learn when we consider the use of terms like kingdom in relation to the Old Testament? We learn that the term has to do with reigning with dynamic force.²³ Thus, the notion that Matthew uses the phrase kingdom of heaven with ethical intent is misplaced.

Second, this argument offers no evidence of what the rabbinic thought of the day was in terms of the term kingdom of heaven. Rather, it simply states that the rabbis used it for ethical reasons and that Matthew aligned with their thinking. Of course, it is not enough to assert the rabbinic understanding. One needs to make a case by producing examples to demonstrate the rabbinic use. Third, this view overlooks the writings of New Testament authors like Paul, who clearly explains that no one will be justified by works of the law but by faith in Jesus Christ (Rom 3:20–31). So why would following an ethical imperative allow the church to enter the future reign of heaven?

Possible weaknesses:

The problem with this view is that it is contrary to the plain meaning of the text. The text specifically states that the kingdom of heaven has come near, so it is hard to see how the kingdom of heaven could only be an imminent future event.