To what does “the fullness of time” refer?

Explanation:

Paul indicates that God planned to unite all things in Christ as a plan, literally, for the fullness of the times [τῶν καιρῶν]. Paul uses a similar, but not identical phrase, in Galatians 4:4, where he writes that when the fullness of time [τοῦ χρόνου] had come, God sent forth his Son. Though the expressions vary in the words used for time, they are both referring to the same thing, the final age of history. Yet Galatians 4:4 has time in the singular, and as such is referring to a moment in that age (the birth of Christ), while here in Ephesians 1:10, Paul uses the plural for time, referring to the entire period of that age.²

Thomas Slater, citing Schnackenburg, adds to this by noting that the fullness of time indicates the climax of all earthly times, the...time of Christ, in which God's mystery in Christ is revealed, realized and developed.³ This time of Christ was inaugurated at his first coming, as suggested by the use of the verb to unite/sum up in the past tense. And it is in the process of being developed, till his second coming.

Counterargument:

Ephesians 1:10 speaks not merely about the time(s) but about the fullness of the times. The term fullness can denote something like completion.⁴ And it is noteworthy that there is only one other occasion in the New Testament where the terms fullness and time are used together, and are pointing to the end of times. That is Luke 21:24, where the Lord Jesus explains that Jerusalem will be trampled by the Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled. After that, the Son of Man will be seen coming on the clouds of heaven, at which point he (Jesus) will establish his messianic kingdom (Luke 21:27). The fullness of time for Luke refers to something like the culmination of all times, which is used to render the end of times. Paul seems to be using the terms to express something similar in Ephesians 1:10.⁵

The point is, we should not quickly overlook that in Ephesians 1:10, Paul is referring not only to the times but to the fullness of the times. Further, in 1 Timothy 6:15, Paul uses the plural of time (καιροῖς), in reference to Christ’s second coming.

Response to counterargument:

The term καιρός (time) is a special word, and its meaning, like that of any other word, needs to be determined by the immediate context. This particular word, in the plural, does not have to refer only to something like the climax of all times, as it has a range of meanings, including seasons and periods. To illustrate, in Acts 17:26 we read that God made from one man every nation of mankind to live on all the face of the earth, having determined allotted periods [καιροὺς]. Also, in Acts 14:17 Luke uses the term to denote fruitful seasons for farming. These are occasions when the New Testament uses the term in the plural and it does not refer to the end of all time.

We have an even more relevant example from 1 Timothy 2:6, where Paul calls on Timothy to pray for all kings and authorities because Christ gave a ransom for many. He then explains that Christ’s work has been witnessed at the proper time (where the plural καιροῖς is in the Greek). Paul is not referring to the end of times, but to the fact that Jesus’ death as payment has been witnessed.

The point is, there are other instances of the plural of καιρός that do not entail the end of time.

Finally, it needs to be pointed out that Luke 21:24 is not without dispute a reference to the final day. This verse is part of a difficult passage, which is often understood as a reference to either the destruction of the temple in AD 70 or to the final day of judgment. Its complexity should not be used to clarify the matter in Ephesians 1:10; to do so is to break a basic rule of interpretation, namely, that one may use a clearer, easier, related passage to help interpret a harder, more complicated passage. To use Luke 21:24 to help interpret Ephesians 1:10 is to use a challenging passage to help interpret another challenging passage.

Explanation:

In Ephesians 1:3–14, Paul offers praise to God for the spiritual blessings that he has purposed in Christ. Next, he reveals some details about how God’s purpose was accomplished. He explains that the immeasurable greatness of God’s power works in believers by the same power by which he raised Christ from the dead and seated him in the heavenly places (Ephesians 1:20). In other words, now that Paul has introduced the broad strokes of God’s redemptive plan, he explains that God’s plan for the fullness of the times was initiated by the death, resurrection, and ascension of Jesus Christ.⁶ He goes on to explain that all things are now under Christ’s feet, and he is the head over all things to the church (Ephesians 1:22).

Counterargument:

While it is the case that all things are now under Christ’s feet, it hardly seems to be the case that all things are united. Ephesians 1:10 indicates that God’s plan for the fullness of the times is for all things to be united under Christ. This process begins now, since Jesus now reigns with God in heaven and has all things placed under his feet, but it will not be completed until the end of the times. Paul alludes to the notion that Christ’s reign has begun, but not all things are yet united in Christ in Ephesians 2:1–7. First, he explains that we who were dead in our sins have now been made alive with Christ (Ephesians 2:1), before explaining that the dark spirit that caused us to sin continues to work in those who are disobedient (Ephesians 2:2). In other words, even though Jesus reigns beside the Father in heaven, the devil remains alive and well. This implies that not all things are yet united in Christ. Still, this will not always be, for we know that the devil will eventually be thrown into the lake of fire, where he will remain forever (Revelation 20:10).

Response to counterargument:

It is not at all obvious that Paul means for the infinitive of to unite to complete the verb to plan/set forth found near the end of Ephesians 1:9. It is just as likely that the verb completes the phrase the mystery of his will.⁷ In other words, the mystery of God’s will (Ephesians 1:9a) is to unite all things in Christ (Ephesians 1:10b). In between Ephesians 1:9a and Ephesians 1:10b Paul includes two subordinate clauses to add further information about the mystery of God’s will. We can rearrange the clauses to bring clarity to what Paul might be saying. It is the mystery of God’s will to unite all things in Christ. This was according to God’s good pleasure that he set forth in Christ as a plan for the fullness of time. Taken in this sense, the plan to unite all things is the mystery of God’s will. God began carrying out this plan at the fullness of the times through Christ. That is, the beginning of Christ’s ministry was the inauguration of the fullness of the times.

Explanation:

Ephesians 1:10 is found near the middle of a berakah, which is a traditional Hebrew formula for blessing God. Paul carries out the poetic nature of the berakah by offering his praise in such a way that it develops toward a climax. He begins by praising God for choosing believers before the very foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:4). That is to say, before there ever was such a notion as time, God chose believers to be holy and blameless before him. He goes on to explain that God predestined us to be his sons and daughters in Christ (Ephesians 1:5). Again, the term predestined carries the sense of beforehand, which might be taken similarly to before the foundation of the world, or before there was time. Paul moves on to explain that God would accomplish his plan through the work of Jesus Christ (Ephesians 1:6–7). Paul is developing his thought, moving from the plan God had before time, to the instrument God used to accomplish his plan. Now, he praises God for making known his plan, which he carried out at the fullness of the times through Jesus Christ. In other words, Paul praises God for what he planned before time even began, and for carrying out his plan at the fullness of the times.

Counterargument:

It is not at all clear that the traditional Hebrew formula of the berakah has a poetic element. The formula of the berakah is to offer praise to God, and then to list the reason for that praise (e.g., 1 Kings 1:48. For a full exposition on the berakah see Ephesians 1:3, Interpretation 1, argument a). Even the lengthy berakah used by David to praise God found in 2 Samuel 22:47–50 follows the familiar pattern of praising God, and then offering the precise reasons for this praise: 1) He is the God who avenges me, 2) he puts the nations under me, 3) he sets me free from my enemies. In other words, there is no reason, given other biblical expressions of the berakah, to press it for poetic style. Still, even if Paul is adding a touch of literary intrigue by developing this berakah toward a climax, why should we think that the climax is when Christ enters the world? It is just as likely that the fullness of the times, which is the supposed climax of the berakah, is Christ’s second coming.

Response to counterargument:

If Paul is using the berakah in a poetic sense to develop his thought toward a climax, then it makes most sense for the climax to be the coming of Christ and his ministry. First, it seems clear that the reason Paul praises God is because of the redemptive elements that Christ accomplished by his death and resurrection. God chose us to be holy and blameless, and this is only possible through Christ’s blood, which offers us forgiveness of sins. At the fullness of the times, God enacted this plan, and now that Jesus’ work has been accomplished, those who put their faith in Christ are adopted into God’s family (Galatians 3:7–9). Second, Paul continues the berakah to the end of Ephesians 1:14, where he continues to explain that those who believe in Jesus Christ received the seal of the Holy Spirit, which guarantees our share in the inheritance of eternal life. In other words, even though Paul is well aware that Jesus will come again a second time, all of his reasons for praising God culminate in the reconciliatory work of Jesus Christ on the cross. The accomplished work of Christ is Paul’s focus from Ephesians 1:3–14, which is the fulfilment of God’s plan at the fullness of the times.

The weakness of this view is that it depends on one way of taking the grammar, and there is more than one way to take the grammar. For instance, the infinitive of to unite might be used to indicate that the mystery of God’s will is to unite all things, or it could be used to indicate that God’s plan for the fullness of time is to unite all things. If the grammar is taken in the latter sense, we should expect all things to be united under Christ at the fullness of time. If the grammar is taken in the former sense, then whether things are united under Christ has no bearing on what Paul means by the fullness of the times.

Explanation:

Paul indicates that God planned to unite all things in Christ as a plan τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν (for the fullness of the times). He uses a similar phrase in Galatians 4:4, where he writes that when τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ χρόνου (the fullness of time) had come, God sent forth his Son. There Paul equates the fullness of time with the birth of Jesus. While the phrase in Ephesians 1:10 is similar, one noteworthy difference is that here Paul uses the plural form of καιρός (time). This renders a slightly different translation, referring to the end point toward which everything, including the revelation of the mystery of God's will (Ephesians 1:9), is moving.⁸

The only other place in the New Testament where the plural of time is used with fullness is in Luke 21:24. There is little doubt that the fullness of time for Luke refers to something like the culmination of all times, which is used to render the end of times. Paul seems to be using the Greek to express something similar in Ephesians 1:10.⁹ (See Interpretation 1, argument 1, counterargument, for more.)

Counterargument:

A distinction between the plural times here and the singular time in Galatians 4:4 should not be pressed too much. Both texts can be fairly taken as referring to the same thing, the final age of history. To be sure, Galatians 4:4 refers to a moment in that age (the birth of Christ), while Ephesians 1:10 refers to the entire period of that age.¹⁰ Nevertheless, there is no substantive difference between the use of the singular or plural in this case. (See Interpretation 1, argument 1, response to counterargument, for more.)

Explanation:

It is likely that the infinitive form of the verb to unite is used to complement the preceding verb to plan/set forth (end of Ephesians 1:9). The idea that Paul wants to convey is that the purpose that God set forth in Christ (as a plan for the fullness of the times) is to unite all things in heaven and on earth, in Christ. In other words, at the fullness of times, God’s plan to unite all things in Christ will take place.¹¹

When we look around at the world, we witness war and famine and death. As such, we do not yet see all things in heaven and earth united in Christ. The author of Hebrews indicates something similar when he writes that God put everything under Jesus’ feet, although at present we do not yet see everything under his feet (Hebrews 2:8). Since at the fullness of the times God’s plan to unite all things in Christ will commence, and not all things are yet united in Christ, we can conclude that the fullness of the times has not yet occurred.

Counterargument:

It might be true that discontentment and dysfunction will remain until Christ’s second coming. Still, there is a sense in which Christ’s work is already accomplished. First, if we take the fullness of the times as specifying the time when God plans to unite all things in Christ, the meaning of to unite should offer us a clue as to whether or not this has already taken place. If it has, then the fullness of the times has to do with Christ’s first coming, and if it has not, it likely refers to Christ’s second coming. The verb to unite is used in only one other passage in the New Testament, by Paul in Romans 13:9. Other ancient writers use the term similar to how Paul uses it in Romans, which is to unite a set of seemingly disparate points into a coherent, articulate, thought.¹² In other words, all of the seemingly disparate aspects of creation are united under Christ. Has this uniting already happened, or will it happen in the future?

In some sense, the Bible indicates that this uniting has already happened. For example, Ephesians 1:20–22 states that Christ sits with God in heaven, and that his name is above every name in this age and in the age to come. The Greek term αἰών (age/era) is similar to the word for time, carrying the sense of a period of time. So, Christ rules already in this age, which lends to the notion that all things have already been united under him. Paul continues by explaining that God has put all things under Christ’s feet. Paul uses the simple past tense for the verb to put. In other words, all things are under Christ’s feet even now. So, it seems that there is a sense in which the fullness of the times has already occurred.

Response to counterargument:

There is a sense in which Christ’s death, resurrection, and ascension to the Father have initiated a new era in history. Indeed, Christ’s work of reconciliation has begun, but it is not yet finished. When Paul indicates that it is God’s plan to sum up/unite in Christ, at the fullness of the times, he specifies that this includes all things….all things in the heavens and all things on the earth. Later in the letter to the Ephesians, Paul exhorts believers to contend against the powers of the devil and the wicked hosts who dwell in the heavenly places (Ephesians 6:11–12). Such exhortations imply that, even though all things are now under Christ’s rule, he has not yet united all things. Christ will sum up all things in heaven and on earth, but this is a future event that will take place at the fullness of the times.¹³

The weakness of this view is that it does not account for the context. Ephesians 1:10 is in the middle of a traditional Hebrew formula of praise known as a berakah. Paul is praising God for all the spiritual blessings that he has poured out on the believer, and in one sense or another these all seem to culminate in the reconciling work of Christ. In other words, the context of Ephesians 1:3–14 is intensely focused on the work that Christ accomplished through the cross. This should be held in mind when determining what the fullness of the times might refer to. And when it is, the fullness of the times likely refers to the time between Christ's first and second coming.

Explanation:

In Ephesians 1:10 there is a preposition to/toward/for that modifies the noun plan. There are at least three different ways to take the preposition in Ephesians 1:10, which could impact the meaning of for the fullness of time.¹⁵ For example, if one takes the preposition in the sense of purpose, then Paul is saying that God’s plan was to bring about the fullness of time in Christ. In other words, Christ is the instrument through which God brings about the events of history.¹⁶

Counterargument:

While it is possible for Paul to use the preposition εἰς in the sense of purpose, most of our authors take it in the sense of time. This makes the most sense given the context, because Paul states something about God’s purpose in Ephesians 1:9, and it seems redundant for him to refer to purpose twice. For example, if we take εἰς in the sense of purpose, and paraphrase Ephesians 1:9–10, Paul is saying something like, According to God’s good purpose which he planned in Christ, with the purpose to bring about the fullness of time.

It is somewhat awkward to take the preposition in the sense of purpose because it would mean that God’s plan in Christ was to bring about the fullness of the times. While this is possible, Paul seems more interested in the outworking of God’s plan, which is to unite all things in Christ.